Read the most frequently asked 100 top Biotechnology interview questions and answers for freshers and experienced....
Biotechnology Interview Questions and Answers PDF Experienced Freshers
1. Where do most allergic reactions occur?
Most of them occur on mucous membrane. Allergens enter the body by the process of inhalation or ingestion.
2. Who are atopic individuals?
Atopic individuals are those who are having abnormal high levels of circulating IgE and more than normal number of oesinophils.
3. What is atopy?
The tendency to manifest localized anaphylactic reactions is called atopy.
4. Name some common allergens associated with type-I hypersensitivity?
Penicillin, sulfonamide, eggs, milk, dust mites, animal air, vaccines etc.
5. What are allergens?
Allergens are non-parasitic antigens. They are capable of stimulating hypersensitive reactions in allergy conditions in an individual.
6. Which type of immunoglobulin level will increase when an individual is exposed to a parasite?
Serum IgE levels will increase and remain until the parasite is washed out from the body.
7. Do you know how the dose for children is being estimated based on preclinical data?
There are a number of ways of estimating children's doses from preclinical (adult) data - often depends on the therapeutic index of the drug in question (the wider the therapeutic window the less accurate the child's dose needs to be). Sometimes straight weight-basis i.e. 7kg child gets 1/10 dose of 70kg adult.
More accurate (so they say) is a dose based on body surface area (child's surface area is greater in proportion to its body weight than an adult is). There are normograms to calculate surface area from weight and height of child.
All of these may be wrong if clearance of drug in child is significantly different from adult e.g. different metabolism or different route of clearance.
8. What is the definition of “Biomedical”? What topics cover the Study of Biomedical Sciences?
The term "biomedical" covers a vast range of subjects - everything that relates biology to medicine. This can range from the obvious like Anatomy, Biochemistry, Physiology, Microbiology, Pharmacology, Genetics to the less obvious like Botany (most drugs were originally derived from plants and, thus, these is a big science called Phytopharmacology).
9. Is Phenoxyethanol harmful?
Phenoxyethanol is harmful and can be absorbed through the skin - official sites for toxicity data, however, show little toxicity in man and some toxicity (irritation) with high doses in animals. Phenoxyethanol is in cosmetics as a bactericide (kills bacteria).
10. Why is buprenorphine less addictive than other opioids (like fentanyl) - is it explainable by its strength of binding to the common receptor, or?
Buprenorphine is what is referred to as a partial agonist - i.e. it binds to the receptor but even at its maximum cannot give as much of an effect as a full agonist (such as morphine) - it is, thus, also a partial antagonist (partially inhibits the actions of full agonists).
As addiction is likely to be linked to strength of the effect of the drug, buprenorphine has less effect and, therefore, less addiction.
11. How is the concentration of drugs in human plasma defined?
Some drugs bind extensively to plasma proteins (Warfarin binds 99%) whereas others have virtually no binding.
Extraction depends on the type of drug - there are different standard techniques for acidic, basic, and neutral drugs - and, indeed, some drugs need specific extraction techniques.
It is important for you doing bioequivalence studies to know exactly the proportion of drug extracted but such controls are again specific for each drug and use specific marker compounds.
12. How is the calculation derived for a drug to be bioequivalent with other? On which base the limit is fixed as 80-120% for a drug to be bioequivalent. What is meant by 90% confidential interval?
To be "bioequivalent" two preparations or drugs need to give the same biological effect.
The usual "experimental error" put on this is 20% - thus, 80-120% is considered "bioequivalent.”
90 percentage confidence interval means that statistically it is 90% certain that the results are equivalent.
13. When we do liquid extraction, what is the effect of adding 10%acid or any base and how do we know which has to be added and up to which concentration or micro liter level can we add such buffers? If any gel formation occurs at the time of extraction, how will it affect the analysis? Shall we continue the extraction with the same or should we drop that method?
The idea of adding acid/base is to change the lipid (and therefore organic solvent) solubility of the components you want to extract.
For example, a fatty acid is more soluble in water as a salt (and, thus, in basic conditions) whereas it is largely insoluble in water in its uncharged state (in acid conditions). So adding acid to the solution of fatty acid salt in water will render it water-insoluble and, thus, move it from the water to the organic solvent.
This is a standard extraction technique for organic acids and bases. Also, note that exact concentrations of acid/base need to be calibrated for each extraction.
Gel formation is difficult to deal with, as you cannot be sure of the extraction (difficult to mix and separate). We would suggest changing the method unless you can show a decent extraction or the description of the method says to expect a gel formation.
14. What would an inhalation, ingestion exposure as well as to the eyes of Butane, Diethylene glycol monobutyl ether, Monoethanolamine (MEA), & Sodium Hydroxide do to the human body?
Sodium hydroxide is a very caustic substance - severe burns on skin contact, can cause severe eye irritation and burning - can severely damage surface of eye causing blindness (permanent), severe burring on ingestion and inhalation.
Butane is a gas - it is very toxic if inhaled - acts like an anesthetic - can stop person breathing very quickly.
Diethyleneglycol monobutyl ether is less acutely toxic but does have long-term toxicity on various organs.
15. Tell us about some drugs that can cross the blood brain barrier?
Any drug that is designed to be given orally, i.m. s.c. or i.v. and acts on the brain MUST cross the blood-brain barrier.
E.g. Opiates, anxiolytics, SSRI's, anti-psychotics
Drug needs to be lipid (fat) soluble to cross the BBB.
16. Give an example for electrophilic substitution reaction?
The species, which accepts the electrons, are called Electrophilles (or) Electrophilic reagents. When the atom (or) group of atoms present in the organic compound is replaced by another atom (or) group of atoms (electrophilic) is called electrophilic substitution reaction.
17. Can muscular dystrophy people take clarithromycin 500mg by IV drip if they are allergic to erythromycin - cant find muscular dystrophy people in the clinical trials? Could it destroy the dystrophin gene and increase their CPK levels?
Clarithromycin is chemically related to erythromycin and almost certainly is cross-reactive - so if you are allergic to erythromycin you will most likely be allergic to clarithromycin as well.
18. What is P-K reaction?
The response produced when an allergen is injected into an individual, who is sensitive is called P-K reaction.
19. What are high affinity receptors?
Mast cells and basophils express high affinity receptor. The high affinity enables it to bind with IgE, despite low serum concentration of IgE.
20. What are low affinity receptors?
Low affinity receptors play role in regulating he intensity of IgE response.
21. What are primary mediators?
Primary mediators are those, which are produced before degranulation. These primary mediators are stored in granules. Some of the primary mediators are histamine, heparin, proteases etc.
22. What are secondary mediators?
Secondary mediators are produced after target cell activation or released by the break down of phospholipids membrane during the process of degarnulation. Some of the secondary mediators are leukotrienes, various cytokines, prostaglandins etc.
23. Explain in brief about histamine?
It is formed by the decarboxylation of amino acid histidine. It accounts for 10% of granule weight. This histamine binds to specific receptors on various target cells.
24. How many types of histamine receptors are there and what are they?
There are three types of histamine receptors. They are H1, H2 and H3.They has different tissue distributions.
25. What is the reaction-taking place when H2 receptor binds to mast cells and basophils?
When H2 binds to mast cells and basophils it suppresses degranulation.
26. Explain in brief about leukotrienes and prostaglandins?
Leukotrienes and prostaglandins are formed only when the mast cell undergo degranulation and enzymatic break down of phospholipids in the plasma membrane.
The effects produced by them are more pronounced and long lasting than histamine. Leukotrienes mediate mucous production and bronchoconstriction. Prostaglandin D2 causes bronchoconstriction.
27. Explain in brief about cytokines?
Cytokines activate inflammatory cells such as neutrophils and eosnophils.IL-5 is important in activation of eosnophils, IL-4 increases IgE production by B-cells. IL-4, Il-5, IL-6, TNF-a has been secreted by human mast cells.
28. What is atopic dermatitis?
Atopic dermatitis is an inflammatory skin disease. This disease is observed frequently in young children. There will be skin eruptions.
29. What is erythroblastosis fetalis?
It is a hemolytic disease, which develops in newborn. Maternal IgG antibodies cross the placenta and destroy the red bleed cells. This develops when an Rh+ expresses an Rh antigen on blood cells that the mother does not express.
30. What is a rhogam?
Is an antibody that binds to any of the blood cells, enter the mother’s blood circulation, and facilitate their clearance by activation of B-cells and memory cell production.
31. What is type I hypersensitivity?
It is IgE mediated hypersensitivity. Typical manifestations include asthma, food allergies, eczema, hay fever etc.
32. What is type II hypersensitivity?
It is IgG mediated cytotoxic hypersensitivity. Typical manifestations include erythroblastosis fetalis, hemolytic anemia, blood transfusion reactions etc.
33. What is type III hypersensitivity?
It is immune complex mediated hypersensitivity. Typical manifestations include rheumatoid arthritis, serum sickness, necrotizing etc.
34. What is type IV hypersensitivity?
It is cell-mediated hypersensitivity. Typical manifestations include graft rejection, dermatitis etc.
35. What is serum sickness?
When an individual is exposed to foreign serum antigen then a combination of symptoms are produced which is called as serum sickness.
36. Give some symptoms of serum sickness?
Symptoms include fever, weakness, rashes, with erythema and edema. Serum sickness depends on the immune complexes formed and the size of the complexes.
37. Name some Infectious diseases?
Some of the Infectious diseases are Malaria, meningitis, trypanosomiasis, hepatitis etc…
38. Name some autoimmune diseases?
Rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, good pasture’s syndrome
39. How many types of hypersensitive reactions are there?
There are four types of hypersensitive reactions, they are:
Type I hypersensitive reaction
Type II hypersensitive reaction
Type III hypersensitive reaction
Type IV hypersensitive reaction
40. What are the steps in bacterial infection?
There are four steps in bacterial infection. They are:
Attachment to host
Proliferation
Invasion of host tissue
Toxin-induced damage to host cell
41. What is the disease caused by Rotavirus?
The disease caused by rotavirus is infantile diarrhea.
42. What is the disease caused by Sabia virus?
Brazilian haemorrhagic
43. What is the disease caused by Ebola virus?
Ebola haemorrhagic fever
44. What is the disease caused by Hepatitis C?
Non-A, Non-B hepatitis are commonly transmitted via transfusion.
45. What is the disease caused by toxin producing strains of Staphylococcus aureus?
Toxic shock syndrome
46. What is the disease caused by HIV?
The disease caused by HIV is AIDS
47. What is the disease caused by Influenza A subtype H5N1?
Avian influenza
48. What is the disease caused by Nipah virus and West Nile virus?
Encephalitis
49. What is the disease caused by Hepatitis E?
Enteric Non-A, Non-B hepatitis
50. What is the disease caused by Borrelia burgdorferi?
Lyme disease
51. What is the disease caused by Cryptosporidium parvum?
Acute chronic diarrhea
52. What is the disease caused by Hantavirus?
Haemorrhagic fever with renal syndrome
53. What is the disease caused by Helicobacter pylori?
Peptic ulcers
54. What is the disease caused by Guanarito virus?
Venezuelan haemorrhagic fever
55. What is the disease caused by Encephalitozzon hellem?
Conjunctivitis, disseminated disease
56. What is the disease caused by Human T-lymphotrophic virus-I?
T-cell lymphoma
57. What is the disease caused by Escherichia coli 0157:H7?
Haemorrhagic colitis
58. What is the disease caused by Vibrio cholerae 0139?
New strain of epidemic cholerae
59. What is the disease caused by Human T-lymphotrophic virus II?
Hairy cell leukemia
60. What is the disease caused by Campylobacter jejuni?
Enteric diseases
61. What is the disease caused by Legionella pneumophilia?
Legionnaire’s disease
62. What is the disease caused by Bartonella henselae?
Cat scratch disease
63. What is the disease caused by Human herpes virus - 8?
It is associated with Kaposi sarcoma in AIDS patients.
64. What is the disease caused by TSE causing agents?
New variant of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
65. What is the disease caused by influenza A subtype H9N2?
New strain of human influenza
66. What happens when gastrointestinal exposure occurs?
Gastrointestinal exposure results in bloody diarrhea, ulcers in ileum or cecum and sepsis and it is very difficult to diagnosis.
67. What happens when cutaneous exposure occurs?
Cutaneous exposure results in skin lesions.
68. How passive immunity is acquired?
Passive immunity is acquired through natural maternal antibodies, antitoxin, and immunoglobulin.
69. How is active immunity acquired?
Active immunity is acquired through vaccines, attenuated organisms, toxoid, natural infection, cloned microbial antigens, etc.
70. Normally at what age vaccination of children begins?
Vaccination of children begins at the age of 2 months.
71. What is a toxoid?
Inactivating the toxin with formaldehyde is toxoid.
72. Why purified macromolecules are used as vaccines?
To avoid the risk associated with attenuated and killed whole organism vaccines.
73. Name some purified macromolecules derived from pathogens?
They are capsular polysaccharides, inactivated exotoxins and recombinant microbial antigens.
74. What is the full form of AIDS?
Full form of AIDS is acquired Immunodeficiency syndrome.
75. How AIDS is caused?
It is caused by the infection of HIV 1 i.e. human immunodeficiency virus.
76. What is a retrovirus?
It is a class of viruses having RNA genome and reverse transcriptase enzyme within virus cuspid.
77. What is a provirus?
It is the DNA representing, the genome of virus that has been integrated into the DNA of the host.
78. How HIV infection is mainly spread?
It is mainly spread by sexual contact, blood transfers and from HIV infected mother to child.
79. What is the treatment for HIV?
Anti-retroviral drugs are given. They lower the viral load and gives relief from infection, but it is not permanent it is temporary relief i.e. it cannot cure.
80. What does HIV results?
HIV results in impairment of immune function by depletion oh CD4+ T cells.
81. What does immunodeficiency results?
Immunodeficiency results in failure of one or more components of immune system.
82. What does myeloid immunodeficiency cause?
Myeloid immunodeficiency causes phagocytic function, which is impaired. Those who are affected with this will suffer with increase in susceptibility to bacterial infection.
83. What do most vaccines function as?
Most of the vaccines prevent disease but not infection.
84. What are major successful vaccines?
Major successful vaccines are live attenuated and heat killed vaccines.
85. What is the current treatment given to AIDS?
Current treatment given to AIDS is HAART (highly active anti retroviral therapy).It is a combination therapy.
86. What does HAART do?
HAART will lower the viral load and improves the health of the patients who are suffering with AIDS.
87. What is the first overt indication of AIDS?
The first overt indication of AIDS may be infection with the fungus Candida albicans, which causes sores in the mouth and in women vulvovaginal yeast infection is formed that will not respond to the treatment given.
88. How viral load can be measured?
Viral load is measured by PCR based techniques.
89. What is an abzyme?
It is a monoclonal antibody, which has catalytic activity.
90. What is adoptive transfer?
The ability to participate in the immune response by the process of transplantation of cells is adoptive transfer.
91. What is an agglutinin?
A substance can mediate clumping of the cells or particles.
92. What is agglutination?
Clumping of particles or cells is called agglutination.
93. What is an agretope?
The region of an antigenic peptide, which binds to MCH molecule, is known as agretope.
94. What is antigenic drift?
Series of point mutations that cause minor antigenic variations in the pathogens
95. What is apoptosis?
Changes those are associated with programmed cell death, including release of apoptotic bodies, blebbing, and nuclear fragmentation.
96. What is autograft?
Grafting of tissues from one part of the body to another in the same individual is called as autograft.
97. What is antigenic competition?
Antigenic competition is the inhibition of immune response to an antigen by immunization with different antigens.
98. What is bradykinin?
A peptide producing inflammatory response.
99. What is a bispecific antibody?
It is made by cross-linking two different antibodies or by fusion of two hybridomas, which produce monoclonal antibodies.
100. What is a booster?
Boosters are given to stimulate immunological memory response.
Biotechnology Interview Questions and Answers PDF Experienced Freshers
Most of them occur on mucous membrane. Allergens enter the body by the process of inhalation or ingestion.
2. Who are atopic individuals?
Atopic individuals are those who are having abnormal high levels of circulating IgE and more than normal number of oesinophils.
3. What is atopy?
The tendency to manifest localized anaphylactic reactions is called atopy.
4. Name some common allergens associated with type-I hypersensitivity?
Penicillin, sulfonamide, eggs, milk, dust mites, animal air, vaccines etc.
5. What are allergens?
Allergens are non-parasitic antigens. They are capable of stimulating hypersensitive reactions in allergy conditions in an individual.
6. Which type of immunoglobulin level will increase when an individual is exposed to a parasite?
Serum IgE levels will increase and remain until the parasite is washed out from the body.
7. Do you know how the dose for children is being estimated based on preclinical data?
There are a number of ways of estimating children's doses from preclinical (adult) data - often depends on the therapeutic index of the drug in question (the wider the therapeutic window the less accurate the child's dose needs to be). Sometimes straight weight-basis i.e. 7kg child gets 1/10 dose of 70kg adult.
More accurate (so they say) is a dose based on body surface area (child's surface area is greater in proportion to its body weight than an adult is). There are normograms to calculate surface area from weight and height of child.
All of these may be wrong if clearance of drug in child is significantly different from adult e.g. different metabolism or different route of clearance.
8. What is the definition of “Biomedical”? What topics cover the Study of Biomedical Sciences?
The term "biomedical" covers a vast range of subjects - everything that relates biology to medicine. This can range from the obvious like Anatomy, Biochemistry, Physiology, Microbiology, Pharmacology, Genetics to the less obvious like Botany (most drugs were originally derived from plants and, thus, these is a big science called Phytopharmacology).
9. Is Phenoxyethanol harmful?
Phenoxyethanol is harmful and can be absorbed through the skin - official sites for toxicity data, however, show little toxicity in man and some toxicity (irritation) with high doses in animals. Phenoxyethanol is in cosmetics as a bactericide (kills bacteria).
10. Why is buprenorphine less addictive than other opioids (like fentanyl) - is it explainable by its strength of binding to the common receptor, or?
Buprenorphine is what is referred to as a partial agonist - i.e. it binds to the receptor but even at its maximum cannot give as much of an effect as a full agonist (such as morphine) - it is, thus, also a partial antagonist (partially inhibits the actions of full agonists).
As addiction is likely to be linked to strength of the effect of the drug, buprenorphine has less effect and, therefore, less addiction.
11. How is the concentration of drugs in human plasma defined?
Some drugs bind extensively to plasma proteins (Warfarin binds 99%) whereas others have virtually no binding.
Extraction depends on the type of drug - there are different standard techniques for acidic, basic, and neutral drugs - and, indeed, some drugs need specific extraction techniques.
It is important for you doing bioequivalence studies to know exactly the proportion of drug extracted but such controls are again specific for each drug and use specific marker compounds.
12. How is the calculation derived for a drug to be bioequivalent with other? On which base the limit is fixed as 80-120% for a drug to be bioequivalent. What is meant by 90% confidential interval?
To be "bioequivalent" two preparations or drugs need to give the same biological effect.
The usual "experimental error" put on this is 20% - thus, 80-120% is considered "bioequivalent.”
90 percentage confidence interval means that statistically it is 90% certain that the results are equivalent.
13. When we do liquid extraction, what is the effect of adding 10%acid or any base and how do we know which has to be added and up to which concentration or micro liter level can we add such buffers? If any gel formation occurs at the time of extraction, how will it affect the analysis? Shall we continue the extraction with the same or should we drop that method?
The idea of adding acid/base is to change the lipid (and therefore organic solvent) solubility of the components you want to extract.
For example, a fatty acid is more soluble in water as a salt (and, thus, in basic conditions) whereas it is largely insoluble in water in its uncharged state (in acid conditions). So adding acid to the solution of fatty acid salt in water will render it water-insoluble and, thus, move it from the water to the organic solvent.
This is a standard extraction technique for organic acids and bases. Also, note that exact concentrations of acid/base need to be calibrated for each extraction.
Gel formation is difficult to deal with, as you cannot be sure of the extraction (difficult to mix and separate). We would suggest changing the method unless you can show a decent extraction or the description of the method says to expect a gel formation.
14. What would an inhalation, ingestion exposure as well as to the eyes of Butane, Diethylene glycol monobutyl ether, Monoethanolamine (MEA), & Sodium Hydroxide do to the human body?
Sodium hydroxide is a very caustic substance - severe burns on skin contact, can cause severe eye irritation and burning - can severely damage surface of eye causing blindness (permanent), severe burring on ingestion and inhalation.
Butane is a gas - it is very toxic if inhaled - acts like an anesthetic - can stop person breathing very quickly.
Diethyleneglycol monobutyl ether is less acutely toxic but does have long-term toxicity on various organs.
15. Tell us about some drugs that can cross the blood brain barrier?
Any drug that is designed to be given orally, i.m. s.c. or i.v. and acts on the brain MUST cross the blood-brain barrier.
E.g. Opiates, anxiolytics, SSRI's, anti-psychotics
Drug needs to be lipid (fat) soluble to cross the BBB.
16. Give an example for electrophilic substitution reaction?
The species, which accepts the electrons, are called Electrophilles (or) Electrophilic reagents. When the atom (or) group of atoms present in the organic compound is replaced by another atom (or) group of atoms (electrophilic) is called electrophilic substitution reaction.
17. Can muscular dystrophy people take clarithromycin 500mg by IV drip if they are allergic to erythromycin - cant find muscular dystrophy people in the clinical trials? Could it destroy the dystrophin gene and increase their CPK levels?
Clarithromycin is chemically related to erythromycin and almost certainly is cross-reactive - so if you are allergic to erythromycin you will most likely be allergic to clarithromycin as well.
18. What is P-K reaction?
The response produced when an allergen is injected into an individual, who is sensitive is called P-K reaction.
19. What are high affinity receptors?
Mast cells and basophils express high affinity receptor. The high affinity enables it to bind with IgE, despite low serum concentration of IgE.
20. What are low affinity receptors?
Low affinity receptors play role in regulating he intensity of IgE response.
21. What are primary mediators?
Primary mediators are those, which are produced before degranulation. These primary mediators are stored in granules. Some of the primary mediators are histamine, heparin, proteases etc.
22. What are secondary mediators?
Secondary mediators are produced after target cell activation or released by the break down of phospholipids membrane during the process of degarnulation. Some of the secondary mediators are leukotrienes, various cytokines, prostaglandins etc.
23. Explain in brief about histamine?
It is formed by the decarboxylation of amino acid histidine. It accounts for 10% of granule weight. This histamine binds to specific receptors on various target cells.
24. How many types of histamine receptors are there and what are they?
There are three types of histamine receptors. They are H1, H2 and H3.They has different tissue distributions.
25. What is the reaction-taking place when H2 receptor binds to mast cells and basophils?
When H2 binds to mast cells and basophils it suppresses degranulation.
26. Explain in brief about leukotrienes and prostaglandins?
Leukotrienes and prostaglandins are formed only when the mast cell undergo degranulation and enzymatic break down of phospholipids in the plasma membrane.
The effects produced by them are more pronounced and long lasting than histamine. Leukotrienes mediate mucous production and bronchoconstriction. Prostaglandin D2 causes bronchoconstriction.
27. Explain in brief about cytokines?
Cytokines activate inflammatory cells such as neutrophils and eosnophils.IL-5 is important in activation of eosnophils, IL-4 increases IgE production by B-cells. IL-4, Il-5, IL-6, TNF-a has been secreted by human mast cells.
28. What is atopic dermatitis?
Atopic dermatitis is an inflammatory skin disease. This disease is observed frequently in young children. There will be skin eruptions.
29. What is erythroblastosis fetalis?
It is a hemolytic disease, which develops in newborn. Maternal IgG antibodies cross the placenta and destroy the red bleed cells. This develops when an Rh+ expresses an Rh antigen on blood cells that the mother does not express.
30. What is a rhogam?
Is an antibody that binds to any of the blood cells, enter the mother’s blood circulation, and facilitate their clearance by activation of B-cells and memory cell production.
31. What is type I hypersensitivity?
It is IgE mediated hypersensitivity. Typical manifestations include asthma, food allergies, eczema, hay fever etc.
32. What is type II hypersensitivity?
It is IgG mediated cytotoxic hypersensitivity. Typical manifestations include erythroblastosis fetalis, hemolytic anemia, blood transfusion reactions etc.
33. What is type III hypersensitivity?
It is immune complex mediated hypersensitivity. Typical manifestations include rheumatoid arthritis, serum sickness, necrotizing etc.
34. What is type IV hypersensitivity?
It is cell-mediated hypersensitivity. Typical manifestations include graft rejection, dermatitis etc.
35. What is serum sickness?
When an individual is exposed to foreign serum antigen then a combination of symptoms are produced which is called as serum sickness.
36. Give some symptoms of serum sickness?
Symptoms include fever, weakness, rashes, with erythema and edema. Serum sickness depends on the immune complexes formed and the size of the complexes.
37. Name some Infectious diseases?
Some of the Infectious diseases are Malaria, meningitis, trypanosomiasis, hepatitis etc…
38. Name some autoimmune diseases?
Rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, good pasture’s syndrome
39. How many types of hypersensitive reactions are there?
There are four types of hypersensitive reactions, they are:
Type I hypersensitive reaction
Type II hypersensitive reaction
Type III hypersensitive reaction
Type IV hypersensitive reaction
40. What are the steps in bacterial infection?
There are four steps in bacterial infection. They are:
Attachment to host
Proliferation
Invasion of host tissue
Toxin-induced damage to host cell
41. What is the disease caused by Rotavirus?
The disease caused by rotavirus is infantile diarrhea.
42. What is the disease caused by Sabia virus?
Brazilian haemorrhagic
43. What is the disease caused by Ebola virus?
Ebola haemorrhagic fever
44. What is the disease caused by Hepatitis C?
Non-A, Non-B hepatitis are commonly transmitted via transfusion.
45. What is the disease caused by toxin producing strains of Staphylococcus aureus?
Toxic shock syndrome
46. What is the disease caused by HIV?
The disease caused by HIV is AIDS
47. What is the disease caused by Influenza A subtype H5N1?
Avian influenza
48. What is the disease caused by Nipah virus and West Nile virus?
Encephalitis
49. What is the disease caused by Hepatitis E?
Enteric Non-A, Non-B hepatitis
50. What is the disease caused by Borrelia burgdorferi?
Lyme disease
51. What is the disease caused by Cryptosporidium parvum?
Acute chronic diarrhea
52. What is the disease caused by Hantavirus?
Haemorrhagic fever with renal syndrome
53. What is the disease caused by Helicobacter pylori?
Peptic ulcers
54. What is the disease caused by Guanarito virus?
Venezuelan haemorrhagic fever
55. What is the disease caused by Encephalitozzon hellem?
Conjunctivitis, disseminated disease
56. What is the disease caused by Human T-lymphotrophic virus-I?
T-cell lymphoma
57. What is the disease caused by Escherichia coli 0157:H7?
Haemorrhagic colitis
58. What is the disease caused by Vibrio cholerae 0139?
New strain of epidemic cholerae
59. What is the disease caused by Human T-lymphotrophic virus II?
Hairy cell leukemia
60. What is the disease caused by Campylobacter jejuni?
Enteric diseases
61. What is the disease caused by Legionella pneumophilia?
Legionnaire’s disease
62. What is the disease caused by Bartonella henselae?
Cat scratch disease
63. What is the disease caused by Human herpes virus - 8?
It is associated with Kaposi sarcoma in AIDS patients.
64. What is the disease caused by TSE causing agents?
New variant of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
65. What is the disease caused by influenza A subtype H9N2?
New strain of human influenza
66. What happens when gastrointestinal exposure occurs?
Gastrointestinal exposure results in bloody diarrhea, ulcers in ileum or cecum and sepsis and it is very difficult to diagnosis.
67. What happens when cutaneous exposure occurs?
Cutaneous exposure results in skin lesions.
68. How passive immunity is acquired?
Passive immunity is acquired through natural maternal antibodies, antitoxin, and immunoglobulin.
69. How is active immunity acquired?
Active immunity is acquired through vaccines, attenuated organisms, toxoid, natural infection, cloned microbial antigens, etc.
70. Normally at what age vaccination of children begins?
Vaccination of children begins at the age of 2 months.
71. What is a toxoid?
Inactivating the toxin with formaldehyde is toxoid.
72. Why purified macromolecules are used as vaccines?
To avoid the risk associated with attenuated and killed whole organism vaccines.
73. Name some purified macromolecules derived from pathogens?
They are capsular polysaccharides, inactivated exotoxins and recombinant microbial antigens.
74. What is the full form of AIDS?
Full form of AIDS is acquired Immunodeficiency syndrome.
75. How AIDS is caused?
It is caused by the infection of HIV 1 i.e. human immunodeficiency virus.
76. What is a retrovirus?
It is a class of viruses having RNA genome and reverse transcriptase enzyme within virus cuspid.
77. What is a provirus?
It is the DNA representing, the genome of virus that has been integrated into the DNA of the host.
78. How HIV infection is mainly spread?
It is mainly spread by sexual contact, blood transfers and from HIV infected mother to child.
79. What is the treatment for HIV?
Anti-retroviral drugs are given. They lower the viral load and gives relief from infection, but it is not permanent it is temporary relief i.e. it cannot cure.
80. What does HIV results?
HIV results in impairment of immune function by depletion oh CD4+ T cells.
81. What does immunodeficiency results?
Immunodeficiency results in failure of one or more components of immune system.
82. What does myeloid immunodeficiency cause?
Myeloid immunodeficiency causes phagocytic function, which is impaired. Those who are affected with this will suffer with increase in susceptibility to bacterial infection.
83. What do most vaccines function as?
Most of the vaccines prevent disease but not infection.
84. What are major successful vaccines?
Major successful vaccines are live attenuated and heat killed vaccines.
85. What is the current treatment given to AIDS?
Current treatment given to AIDS is HAART (highly active anti retroviral therapy).It is a combination therapy.
86. What does HAART do?
HAART will lower the viral load and improves the health of the patients who are suffering with AIDS.
87. What is the first overt indication of AIDS?
The first overt indication of AIDS may be infection with the fungus Candida albicans, which causes sores in the mouth and in women vulvovaginal yeast infection is formed that will not respond to the treatment given.
88. How viral load can be measured?
Viral load is measured by PCR based techniques.
89. What is an abzyme?
It is a monoclonal antibody, which has catalytic activity.
90. What is adoptive transfer?
The ability to participate in the immune response by the process of transplantation of cells is adoptive transfer.
91. What is an agglutinin?
A substance can mediate clumping of the cells or particles.
92. What is agglutination?
Clumping of particles or cells is called agglutination.
93. What is an agretope?
The region of an antigenic peptide, which binds to MCH molecule, is known as agretope.
94. What is antigenic drift?
Series of point mutations that cause minor antigenic variations in the pathogens
95. What is apoptosis?
Changes those are associated with programmed cell death, including release of apoptotic bodies, blebbing, and nuclear fragmentation.
96. What is autograft?
Grafting of tissues from one part of the body to another in the same individual is called as autograft.
97. What is antigenic competition?
Antigenic competition is the inhibition of immune response to an antigen by immunization with different antigens.
98. What is bradykinin?
A peptide producing inflammatory response.
99. What is a bispecific antibody?
It is made by cross-linking two different antibodies or by fusion of two hybridomas, which produce monoclonal antibodies.
100. What is a booster?
Boosters are given to stimulate immunological memory response.
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